Matt; I cannot comment with any reasonable understanding about the spectra of Catholicism or the Protestant denomination other than that of the Protestant's denying a universal authority figure such as a Pope. Maybe you could then derive that one's faith might well be offensive to the other. One's Gospel? Maybe not so much. One's interpretation, yeah. However, I would like to introduce Proverbs 16:4 into the dicussion. It reads,
"The Lord hath made all things for himself; yea even the wicked for the day of evil."
It rings so true. But. Should you read it over and over again it can almost of its own rapidity feel offensive to everything else in the Word of God. A PoWerFul, PoWerFul verse.
Matt, This verse 16:4 is my favorite read in the entire Bible. I can imagine that it could very well be quite offensive to those who credit 'sir satan' with bringing 'wicked' into the painting of all things we know and love Biblical. So then might we be offended if we assume by 16:4 that the Lord indeed may have made 'Satan' for himself. Knowing that he would represent our offense to a wicked. In fact, for the day any day of evil. The Lord truely is the Creator of all. It would be TRUELY offensive to believe otherwise don't you think?
As always. Great blog. Sidney
Not sure of your point. The point of my post was primarily to link to provide the link. You may have noticed that the pattern of this blog is to use provocative titles that have varying degrees of actual relation to the subject of the post.
But hey, I'll still respond with a few points to what I think you might be getting at in this verse:
The verse does not say God created anyone TO BE wicked, only that he did in fact create those who ARE wicked (by their own free choice.
The NIV says, "The LORD works out everything for his own ends" -- which is very different from your translation. I studied a lot of Greek, but I don't know an ounce of Hebrew to be able to understand any reasoing for the difference.
I do not think the "day of evil" or "day of diaster" (NIV) is referring to damnation. I think it refers to that acts of the evil person himself.
So I don't think this verse is saying "God made evil people so he could damn them to hell for his own glory," but instead, it is a reminder to the faithful that on the day they experience evil brough on by others, that their offenders were also created by the God who created all things, and is capable of working out good from what was intended for evil.
Matt, I get the link to the link thing. You were saying that catholics, protestants etc. in effect water down the language of the Bible to fend off the offensive nature of the word, right? On the 16:4 thing. And I got my wording from an old Schofield Bible and a new Thompson Abridged Reference Bible. All the older Bibles have it printed this way, or at least most. I personaly believe that the Lord does not, quote 'make' anyone wicked but he makes it(the possibility for wickedness) available. You know, if there is nothing to save then there is no need for salvation. No need for salvation, then no need for the Lord. You need the prospect of wickedness to necessitate a saving intervention? Correct. Of course, man chooses to pick up wickedness and run with it. I did not mean to say that God makes him do such. But, he had to provide the ammo. for the evil gun to go off. And, you know God uses a 'wicked means' to punish. Does he not. Just throwing a few things out. Sidney
Your argument's breaking point is that "no need for salvation = no need for Lord." Simply not true. I need my wife regardless of anything she can or may do for me, whether that's salvation or washed dishes.
Man did not need to fall. Man chose to fall.
The gun/ammo metaphor doesn't quite work for me, either. I'd accept:
God gives man a chunk of metal which man fashions into a gun & bullets, and uses for his own ends.
Matt,
Lets play 'predestiny' here. What we have here is a God. An all knowing, all seeing Creator of all things including A.)time B.)dimension C. ) Destiny
It seems unreasonable, not logical here to compare your relationship with your wife here to the relationship you have with your creator. Your dear wife who I presume married you under the confines of 'for better or worse'. With the hope that the 'for better' would prevail. Your creator has no such confines. Has the ability and the fortitude(as his history shows us) to not only control the rules of the game but to at any time reinvent those said rules. Those rules being that simply put: HE RULES. A.) He rules in time. You have no option here. Your time is your time here and can be no one else's. His time is not only his time but as well your time. He can go forward or backward. One way for you, only one way. Your eternity and how you spend it is also part of your time. His eternity will never be married to your eternity no matter your love for him or your disdain for him. B.) Dimension is the biggee here in the relationship between God and man. God owns multiple dimensions. There are said to be as many as 12 dimensions, maybe up to 21. All under God's auspice of course. Man lives UNDER one dimension and controls zero. Not hardly a marriage here under any circumstance when the value finds itself tilted in such a dominent angle. [can't see the forest for the trees comes to mind here when we observe man and his predicament as far as dimension goes.] Watch an ant in your yard. Follow him around for awhile as he toils and goes about his business. He hasn't a clue nor the capacity to know that you are peering over him and have total dimension over him and you are both in the same sphere(dimension). At any time you may end his being. Now multiply that by 12 or 21. There is your ratio to God. For worse becomes the ominous possibility with these numbers. C.) Your only saving grace. Destiny. God has given you a game to play. You play the faith game or you lose. Do not try to figure the game out you are 21 times smaller than the ant, the rules are forever changing and your time is never his time. Faith it is then. I'm in.
When I was talking the need for salvation. I was not talking OUR(man's) need but rather God's need for the plan of salvation. God's plan is kind of similiar to that of the marines. He only needs a few good men. As per the rule ( the road is wide to not succeed and narrow to succeed.) We can certainly debate religion because religion is about man and his lowly dimension that he does not own and is just UNDER. All of that is up in the air because that is all it amounts to AIR. No debate on God and his game, his multiple of dimensions, his {my way, or the highway}. Play the faith game and add a dimension(an eternity to keep playing). Disregard the rules of the maker of the game and you are done. Crisp. Can you say bacon? I love talking about it but in the end. It has all been said. It is said that Jesus said "it is finished" on the cross. I believe they misheard him. What he really said was. "Aposiopesis' which means- the leaving of something incomplete.
Sidney
The other rule is that God plays by his own rules. He can limit himself, and does, the incarnation being the prime example.
I'm not interested in worshipping a god who will "reinvent those said rules" on a whim. A god who won't follow his own rules is an inconsistent tyrant. That's not the God I know. That's not the God revealed in Jesus, IMHO. That's not a God so bound by his own limitations that he would allow his beloved Son to be crucified by men. If God can "reinvent" the rules, then Jesus didn't have to die.
Sidney seems to be moving toward some flavor of gnosticism here. The suggestions that something happened at Jesus last moments on the cross other than the orthodox teaching of 2000 years of Church history would be the biggest hint to that effect. That rumor has been around for at least 1800 years, and it's been consistently rejected by the church at large.
Matt,
I had to look up gnosticism. I have heard the term but I did not know what it was. I read that gnosis- is an esoteric knowledge of spiritual truth essential to salvation. Then I had to look up esoteric- designed for or understood by the specially initiated alone, of or relating to knowledge that is restricted to a small group.
By golly. That sounds like the definition of someone who has a personal relationship with God after finding salvation. I believe I just might be a gnostic. Lets review. I do indeed believe that I have a knowledge that is generally restricted to most of mankind beacause of his inability to accept the conditions set up, for such knowledge. Because I have accepted that would, yes. Put me in a category of the specially initiated after the fact. If God is the one that specially does the initiating then I definately am one! Let me see if we are on the same page here about something. Do you believe that God and Jesus are the same guy. I do. The same guy in different states. The son of God is not solely a son of God. He is God 'in the state of God as the son'. The same with the Holy Spirit. God being God is three seperate manners to work three seperate matters. God can use his tri-state where he deems appropriate. As I believe these things then I become a partner to this special math and I concur with God in this belief and he delivers me 'a special initiative'. I have taken that pill no doubt. I have swallowed it hook, line and sinker. I am swimming around in it right now. Yeah, I guess gnosis fits me to a T if the T is stood up by God. I'm in. As far as the incarnation the only reason God performed that scenario in that limited form was not because God limits himself but because God knew that man and his intellect was limited in his ability to comprehend . God had to construe a performance that the character of man could relate to. Something man already had a relativ e concept of. For ages man had been sacrificing animals and knew the concept of sacrifice. God will have to reinvent as he creates and observes because man in his sin and his is forever reinventing himself and his religion with his defacto sinful logic.
I can say this with all good reason. I am for sure 'not' an (ag)nostic. I do believe that the ultimate reality of God can be known and is knowable after taking the plunge toward the faith proclamation. It becomes evident after that and that evidence becomes knowing.
Cleverness, manipulation etc. all crucial to lead the lamb to the shepherd so that the shepherd(the religious organizations) are able to sheer(stear their course). If the shepherd looks like a wolf he loses the faith of the sheep. You have to begin with an easy pull. The pushing and shoving can come later by the religeous heirarchy and the congregation.
The verse does not say God created anyone TO BE wicked, only that
he did in fact create those who ARE wicked (by their own free choice.
Where does Proverbs 16:4 say anything about their "free choice?"
FYI, the argument for reprobation from Prov. 16:4 is not the decree causes them to be wicked but that it makes their wickedness certain. Decrees are not means. That's a category error.
In context, Proverbs rather clearly denies libertarian freedom:
“The lot is cast into the lap, but its every decision is from the Lord” (Prov. 16:33).
16:1: The plans of the heart belong to man,
But the answer of the tongue is from the LORD.
2. Jude 4, however, is quite clear:
4For certain persons
have crept in unnoticed, those who were long beforehand marked out for
this condemnation, ungodly persons who turn the grace of our God into
licentiousness and deny our only Master and Lord, Jesus Christ.
3. I do not think the "day of evil" or "day of diaster" (NIV) is referring
to damnation. I think it refers to that acts of the evil person himself.
No, "day of evil" and "day of disaster" are common Hebrew eschatological terms referring to the Day of the Lord or “day of adversity" and judgment that will fall on the nation or the wicked individual. The point is that God uses even the wicked to bring him glory. As he said to Pharaoh, "for this very purpose, I raised you up." The point is that the will of God is always the antecedens:nothing happens to God through the obstinacy and rebellion of man which determines Him to an action not already embraced in the eternal plan, but also such an one must against his will be subservient to the display of God’s glory.
Further, let's suppose the libertarian objection stands. This only moves back the question back one step, for even for the Libertarian who is not an Open Theist, God is still creating people with infallible foreknowledge of what evil they will do, knowing full well He will damn them. So, the objection he raises to the Calvinistic doctrine falls back on him with equal force.
I'm not in your club, so I don't understand your secret code. You'll apparently need to define "decrees," "means," "Libertarian," etc, for us to be able to have a conversation. Remember, i'm not a professional theologian. I only know what I've read, and that's a relatively limited body of work outside of scripture.
My parenthetical was in paranthese to show that I was adding information from my own theological postion, not necessarily exegeting the text. I'm not saying that the verse proves anything about free will. I'm just noting that in my opinion, those who are wicked are so because of their own free choice. You can disagree on that particular point, and I think we can still have ameaningful discussion of the verse aside from the free will discussion. But most of my theology does rest on the presupposition that either we do in fact have free will, or that we at least experience the world as though we did, so we should structure our theology as if we did have it, since it's probably impossible to know for certain. In other words, if I don't have free will, then God forced me to wrongly believe that I do, so who am I to object to his decision?
I was not aware that these standard terms in theological discourse for several centuries were part of my secret code. If you are going to talk about "Free choice" and construct, by your own admission, a theology around your intuitions about free choice, then shouldn't you be the one to define your terms? When I used these, I am using them no different than the Reformed tradition has used them and basic philosophy uses them, and these are easily accessible.
You could start by consulting what the Westminister Confession or the Second London Baptist Confession says about providence and free agency, or a standard reference like Wayne Grudem's Systematic Theology, Robert Reymond's, or just going to Monergism.com to look up some material.
The classic exposition is Jonathan Edwards' Inquiry on the Freedom of
[the] Will. A summary can be found in Paul Helm's book on Divine
Providence. John Frame's Doctrine of God also contains a section or two
on this.
Online treatments, not from a Christian perspective, include:
Libetarian freedom is simply a generalized construct that states that freedom is contracausal. Put another way, "ability limits responsibility." The Orthodox, Arminians, Catholics, and most other traditions, bar Calvinists are "Libertarians." It means they affirm indeterminate freedom. For a choice to be "real," the agent must be free from causes. I affirm determinate freedom. He is neither free from God's decrees nor free from his own desires. He will always act according to his strongest one.
There are two types of determinism: hard and soft. I affirm the latter, not the former. The agent is free to do otherwise, if he desires to do so. The confessions implicityly opt for this one. You can find many articles on this subject on my blog, Triablogue.
You're the one making claims about Proverbs 16 and "free choice," so, I'll ask again - since you did not provide an answer to my query - where is "free choice" in this text?
The text you cited is part of a larger argument that denies "free choice," defined the way you seem to wish to define it, that is is Libertarian terms.
1The plans of the heart belong to man,
But the answer of the tongue is from the LORD.
4The LORD has made everything for its own purpose,
Even the wicked for the day of evil.
9The mind of man plans his way,
But the LORD directs his steps. 10A divine decision is in the lips of the king;
His mouth should not err in judgment.
33The lot is cast into the lap,
But its every decision is from the LORD.
Chapter 21:
1The king's heart is like channels of water in the hand of the LORD;
He turns it wherever He wishes.
That's just a sample.
I'm rather concerned about this statement:
But most of my theology does rest on the presupposition that either we
do in fact have free will, or that we at least experience the world as
though we did, so we should structure our theology as if we did have
it, since it's probably impossible to know for certain. In other words,
if I don't have free will, then God forced me to wrongly believe that I
do, so who am I to object to his decision?
A. The last statement is a nonsequitur, and you're implicitly assuming a particular action theory.
Also, you're confusing causality and providence. Your argument seems to be: If God decreed x then I don't have"free will" if it is infallibly secured by the decree that I will do it." But decrees are like blueprints, only delineating the ends. Providence, usually secondaray causes, work out the means.
B. That action theory seems to be based on intuition. Where is the supporting argument?
C. If "impossible" to know, then that would cut both ways, so your last statement is not selected by this statement. Rather, we should develop two theologies one as if we do and another as if we do not.
D. I should think that we should develop our theology based on Scripture not intuitions, and Scripture, does, in point of fact, talk about this subject.
The question is not "Do we have 'free will?" but what kind of "free will" do we have?
From an atheist perspective Oppy writes: On the libertarian conception
of freedom, one acts freely only if, in the very circumstances in which
one acted, it was within one's power to do otherwise--which is
incompatible with efficient causation of action. But as I see it, the
only alternative to efficient causation is absence of causation; and,
if one's actions are only 'free' because they have no causes, then this
is not a kind of 'freedom' worth wanting.
Note that even Oppy realizes where libertarianism cashes out at the level of causality - there are no causes to our behavior. That is a standard definition for libertarian action theory.
Libertarianism
is an abstract generalization of the principle that "ability limits
responsibility," such that, if our decisions (choices) are afflicted by
any kind of inability, then they are not truly free and we are not
truly responsible (eg. blameworthy) for them. Freedom is contracausal.
Put another way, at the level of causality, choices are uncaused, but
not unassisted.
So, I say that to demonstrate what it is that the libertarian must prove from Scripture, and that, if you take the position you have taken, is what you must show. Libertarians, therefore, do not generally stake out their position from Scripture. It's a axiomatic concept they admittedly impose upon it (Miley, Systematic Theology, Vol.2, 275)
Scripture
is very consistent in attributing the choices of men to antecedent
causes. Proverbs 16 attributes several to God. James 2 is very clear
that men are led astray "by their own evil desires."
Matt. 7:15
- 20 and Lk. 6:43 - 45 teach the good tree brings forth good fruit, and
the evil tree bad fruit. Our actions come from the heart.
Libertarianism destroys the unity of the personality in the heart of
man as described in Scripture. It is a construct that libertarians
admit to bringing to the text of Scripture. The onus is on them to show
it is grounded in Scripture.
All that I have to do is show texts
like the ones above that prove explicitly that men are not free from
antecedent causation of our decisions either in relation to God or to
their own desires and motives. Any appeal to an inner motive in man
directly undercuts libertarian freedom, for libertarianism, by
definition, cuts the causal nerve - and, when Scripture speaks on these
matters it speaks of God's overruling, indeed outright directing, the
minds and hearts and actions of men, and it attributes our decisions,
actions, etc. to our motives as well.
The heart of man plans his course, but the Lord determines his steps. (Prov. 16:9, cf. 16:1, 19:21)
"the Lord caused the men throughout the camp to turn on each other with their swords." (Jdgs 7:22).
"the filled (Israel) w/joy by changing the attitude of the king of Assyria" (Ezra 6:22)
The
Lord foreordained that the robe of the Lord Jesus was not turn but lots
were cast for it (Jn 19:24, quoting Ps. 22:18, cf. Jn 19:31 - 37).
Then
we have the passages on divine hardening of Pharaoh and Sihon; God
sending an evil spirit to torment Saul, and another instance of Him
sending evil spirits to cause the false prophets to lie, in order to
lead Ahab to his death (I Kings 22:20 - 23).
Isaiah 10 tells us that God raised of Assyria/Babylon to judge Israel and yet held them accountable for their sins in doing so.
Isa.
6 (and John 12) speak of divine hardening. The latter is an instance
parallel to the former. Isa. 63 says that God makes us (Israel) wander
from your (His) ways and hardens our hearts so we do not revere him
(vs. 17).
Ps. 33:15 says the Lord fashions, eg. directs the heart not only of kings (Proverbs 21:1) but of all people.
Out of the overflow of the heart, the mouth speaks (Luke 6;45; Mt. 7:15 - 20, 12:33- 35).
John 8:44 You are of your father the devil, and you want to do the
desires of your father He was a murderer from the beginning, and does
not stand in the truth because there is no truth in him Whenever he
speaks a lie, he speaks from his own nature, for he is a liar and the
father of lies. ...8: 47"He who is of God hears the words of God; for
this reason you do not hear them, because you are not of God. By
nature, they were not of God. There nature determined their desires.
Simply
put, there is no passage of Scripture that can be construed to mean
that the human will is independent of God's plan and of the rest of the
human personality/psyche. The exact opposite is the case. Libertarians,
I might add, don't usually try to establish there position from
exegesis for this very reason.
I only studied enough of the Westminster documents to realize they were utterly despicable, and I only read enough of your book post to realize that you didn't read mine. I wasn't trying to prove Free will from the verse in question. You're just co-opting the conversation to make your own point.
Not interested. But feel free to hang out, enjoy the rest of the site, etc, etc.
Comments
offensive; what the Gospel-try Proverbs 16:4
Not sure of your point. The
- The verse does not say God created anyone TO BE wicked, only that he did in fact create those who ARE wicked (by their own free choice.
- The NIV says, "The LORD works out everything for his own ends" -- which is very different from your translation. I studied a lot of Greek, but I don't know an ounce of Hebrew to be able to understand any reasoing for the difference.
- I do not think the "day of evil" or "day of diaster" (NIV) is referring to damnation. I think it refers to that acts of the evil person himself.
So I don't think this verse is saying "God made evil people so he could damn them to hell for his own glory," but instead, it is a reminder to the faithful that on the day they experience evil brough on by others, that their offenders were also created by the God who created all things, and is capable of working out good from what was intended for evil.my pt. wicked to finish the painting
Your argument's breaking
Your argument's breaking point is that "no need for salvation = no need for Lord." Simply not true. I need my wife regardless of anything she can or may do for me, whether that's salvation or washed dishes.
Man did not need to fall. Man chose to fall.
The gun/ammo metaphor doesn't quite work for me, either. I'd accept:
God gives man a chunk of metal which man fashions into a gun & bullets, and uses for his own ends.
Aposiopesis
God limits himself
God is Jesus
not an (ag) nostic for certain
easy does it
The verse does not say God
- The verse does not say God created anyone TO BE wicked, only that
he did in fact create those who ARE wicked (by their own free choice.
Where does Proverbs 16:4 say anything about their "free choice?" FYI, the argument for reprobation from Prov. 16:4 is not the decree causes them to be wicked but that it makes their wickedness certain. Decrees are not means. That's a category error. In context, Proverbs rather clearly denies libertarian freedom: “The lot is cast into the lap, but its every decision is from the Lord” (Prov. 16:33). 16:1: The plans of the heart belong to man, But the answer of the tongue is from the LORD. 2. Jude 4, however, is quite clear: 4For certain persons have crept in unnoticed, those who were long beforehand marked out for this condemnation, ungodly persons who turn the grace of our God into licentiousness and deny our only Master and Lord, Jesus Christ. 3. I do not think the "day of evil" or "day of diaster" (NIV) is referring to damnation. I think it refers to that acts of the evil person himself. No, "day of evil" and "day of disaster" are common Hebrew eschatological terms referring to the Day of the Lord or “day of adversity" and judgment that will fall on the nation or the wicked individual. The point is that God uses even the wicked to bring him glory. As he said to Pharaoh, "for this very purpose, I raised you up." The point is that the will of God is always the antecedens:nothing happens to God through the obstinacy and rebellion of man which determines Him to an action not already embraced in the eternal plan, but also such an one must against his will be subservient to the display of God’s glory. Further, let's suppose the libertarian objection stands. This only moves back the question back one step, for even for the Libertarian who is not an Open Theist, God is still creating people with infallible foreknowledge of what evil they will do, knowing full well He will damn them. So, the objection he raises to the Calvinistic doctrine falls back on him with equal force.I'm not in your club, so I
yes
Free Choice
I was not aware that these standard terms in theological discourse for several centuries were part of my secret code. If you are going to talk about "Free choice" and construct, by your own admission, a theology around your intuitions about free choice, then shouldn't you be the one to define your terms? When I used these, I am using them no different than the Reformed tradition has used them and basic philosophy uses them, and these are easily accessible.
You could start by consulting what the Westminister Confession or the Second London Baptist Confession says about providence and free agency, or a standard reference like Wayne Grudem's Systematic Theology, Robert Reymond's, or just going to Monergism.com to look up some material.
The classic exposition is Jonathan Edwards' Inquiry on the Freedom of [the] Will. A summary can be found in Paul Helm's book on Divine Providence. John Frame's Doctrine of God also contains a section or two on this.Online treatments, not from a Christian perspective, include:
http://www.rep.routledge.com/article/V014SECT1
For more in-depth coverage, there's:
http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/compatibilism/
http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/compatibilism/supplement.html
Libetarian freedom is simply a generalized construct that states that freedom is contracausal. Put another way, "ability limits responsibility." The Orthodox, Arminians, Catholics, and most other traditions, bar Calvinists are "Libertarians." It means they affirm indeterminate freedom. For a choice to be "real," the agent must be free from causes. I affirm determinate freedom. He is neither free from God's decrees nor free from his own desires. He will always act according to his strongest one.
There are two types of determinism: hard and soft. I affirm the latter, not the former. The agent is free to do otherwise, if he desires to do so. The confessions implicityly opt for this one. You can find many articles on this subject on my blog, Triablogue.
For example:
http://triablogue.blogspot.com/2007/04/todays-your-lucky-day.html
http://triablogue.blogspot.com/2007/04/agent-causation.html
and here:
http://triablogue.blogspot.com/2007/04/contemporary-compatibilism.html
You're the one making claims about Proverbs 16 and "free choice," so, I'll ask again - since you did not provide an answer to my query - where is "free choice" in this text?
The text you cited is part of a larger argument that denies "free choice," defined the way you seem to wish to define it, that is is Libertarian terms.
1The plans of the heart belong to man,
4The LORD has made everything for its own purpose,But the answer of the tongue is from the LORD.
Even the wicked for the day of evil.
9The mind of man plans his way,
33The lot is cast into the lap,But the LORD directs his steps.
10A divine decision is in the lips of the king;
His mouth should not err in judgment.
But its every decision is from the LORD.
Chapter 21:
1The king's heart is like channels of water in the hand of the LORD;
He turns it wherever He wishes.
That's just a sample.
I'm rather concerned about this statement:
But most of my theology does rest on the presupposition that either we do in fact have free will, or that we at least experience the world as though we did, so we should structure our theology as if we did have it, since it's probably impossible to know for certain. In other words, if I don't have free will, then God forced me to wrongly believe that I do, so who am I to object to his decision?
A. The last statement is a nonsequitur, and you're implicitly assuming a particular action theory.
Also, you're confusing causality and providence. Your argument seems to be: If God decreed x then I don't have"free will" if it is infallibly secured by the decree that I will do it." But decrees are like blueprints, only delineating the ends. Providence, usually secondaray causes, work out the means.
B. That action theory seems to be based on intuition. Where is the supporting argument?
C. If "impossible" to know, then that would cut both ways, so your last statement is not selected by this statement. Rather, we should develop two theologies one as if we do and another as if we do not.
D. I should think that we should develop our theology based on Scripture not intuitions, and Scripture, does, in point of fact, talk about this subject.
The question is not "Do we have 'free will?" but what kind of "free will" do we have?
From an atheist perspective Oppy writes: On the libertarian conception of freedom, one acts freely only if, in the very circumstances in which one acted, it was within one's power to do otherwise--which is incompatible with efficient causation of action. But as I see it, the only alternative to efficient causation is absence of causation; and, if one's actions are only 'free' because they have no causes, then this is not a kind of 'freedom' worth wanting.Steve Hays talked about him here:
http://triablogue.blogspot.com/2006/11/oppy-on-atheism.html
Note that even Oppy realizes where libertarianism cashes out at the level of causality - there are no causes to our behavior. That is a standard definition for libertarian action theory.
Libertarianism is an abstract generalization of the principle that "ability limits responsibility," such that, if our decisions (choices) are afflicted by any kind of inability, then they are not truly free and we are not truly responsible (eg. blameworthy) for them. Freedom is contracausal. Put another way, at the level of causality, choices are uncaused, but not unassisted.
So, I say that to demonstrate what it is that the libertarian must prove from Scripture, and that, if you take the position you have taken, is what you must show. Libertarians, therefore, do not generally stake out their position from Scripture. It's a axiomatic concept they admittedly impose upon it (Miley, Systematic Theology, Vol.2, 275)
Scripture is very consistent in attributing the choices of men to antecedent causes. Proverbs 16 attributes several to God. James 2 is very clear that men are led astray "by their own evil desires."
Matt. 7:15 - 20 and Lk. 6:43 - 45 teach the good tree brings forth good fruit, and the evil tree bad fruit. Our actions come from the heart. Libertarianism destroys the unity of the personality in the heart of man as described in Scripture. It is a construct that libertarians admit to bringing to the text of Scripture. The onus is on them to show it is grounded in Scripture.
All that I have to do is show texts like the ones above that prove explicitly that men are not free from antecedent causation of our decisions either in relation to God or to their own desires and motives. Any appeal to an inner motive in man directly undercuts libertarian freedom, for libertarianism, by definition, cuts the causal nerve - and, when Scripture speaks on these matters it speaks of God's overruling, indeed outright directing, the minds and hearts and actions of men, and it attributes our decisions, actions, etc. to our motives as well.
The heart of man plans his course, but the Lord determines his steps. (Prov. 16:9, cf. 16:1, 19:21)
"the Lord caused the men throughout the camp to turn on each other with their swords." (Jdgs 7:22).
"the filled (Israel) w/joy by changing the attitude of the king of Assyria" (Ezra 6:22)
The Lord foreordained that the robe of the Lord Jesus was not turn but lots were cast for it (Jn 19:24, quoting Ps. 22:18, cf. Jn 19:31 - 37).
Then we have the passages on divine hardening of Pharaoh and Sihon; God sending an evil spirit to torment Saul, and another instance of Him sending evil spirits to cause the false prophets to lie, in order to lead Ahab to his death (I Kings 22:20 - 23).
Isaiah 10 tells us that God raised of Assyria/Babylon to judge Israel and yet held them accountable for their sins in doing so.
Isa. 6 (and John 12) speak of divine hardening. The latter is an instance parallel to the former. Isa. 63 says that God makes us (Israel) wander from your (His) ways and hardens our hearts so we do not revere him (vs. 17).
Ps. 33:15 says the Lord fashions, eg. directs the heart not only of kings (Proverbs 21:1) but of all people.
Out of the overflow of the heart, the mouth speaks (Luke 6;45; Mt. 7:15 - 20, 12:33- 35).
John 8:44 You are of your father the devil, and you want to do the desires of your father He was a murderer from the beginning, and does not stand in the truth because there is no truth in him Whenever he speaks a lie, he speaks from his own nature, for he is a liar and the father of lies. ...8: 47"He who is of God hears the words of God; for this reason you do not hear them, because you are not of God. By nature, they were not of God. There nature determined their desires.
Simply put, there is no passage of Scripture that can be construed to mean that the human will is independent of God's plan and of the rest of the human personality/psyche. The exact opposite is the case. Libertarians, I might add, don't usually try to establish there position from exegesis for this very reason.
I only studied enough of
I only studied enough of the Westminster documents to realize they were utterly despicable, and I only read enough of your
bookpost to realize that you didn't read mine. I wasn't trying to prove Free will from the verse in question. You're just co-opting the conversation to make your own point.Not interested. But feel free to hang out, enjoy the rest of the site, etc, etc.
Latte's are on the house.
latte no. crown, yes please.
day of evil *ends to a means*
Matt,
Also, I was thinking that "day of evil" would refer to *an ends to a means, God's means.*
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